Because the Latin colonies were founded primarily by the Iberian governments as opposed to private individuals, and the native population was assimilated directly by entities representing these governments, it made sense for the colonies to use the official languages of the states. Because colonization began as Aragon (The only non-Spanish or Portugese speaking state in Iberia excluding Navarra, which was too small to be a major colonial player,) entered into a personal union with Castille, enforcing a minority language on the indigenous population made little sense in terms of administration, especially considering the population was primarily indigenous or mestizo and so migration from minority areas of Spain and Portugal did not have nearly the same impact demographically as it did in the English colonies.

This is supposed to be r/askhistorians, can someone source their claims, please? Be a little more specific and accurate?

I'm reading that Catalan was a "minority language" when it was one of the official languages of the Crown of Aragon's administration alongside Aragonese and Latin, and definitely the most spoken by the Crown's population in their Iberian territories (esp. Valencia, Balearic Islands and off course Catalonia, where its inhabitants only spoke Catalan for the most part).

http://movimentfranjoli.blogspot.com.es/2016/04/sobre-el-catala-i-lus-de-les-llengues.html

http://www.conselldemallorca.net/?id_section=1281&id_son=1283&

Can someone quote the laws that prevented foreign countries (Crown of Aragon, France, England, Bohemia, etc) from settling and trading in Castille (not spain, that political entity wouldn't exist until 1812) and Portugal "Tordesillas Areas"?

http://www.abc.es/internacional/20130914/abci-tratado-tordesillas-201309132226.html

http://datadipuy.com/tratados-de-tordesillas-1494/

Maybe someone can also go a little into detail of what a Dynastic Union is and what isn't.

Thanks