I am given to understand that in the 1600s most of the European monarchies were more centralized and more recognizable as states than their middle age counterparts, and I am interested in how exactly this transition occurred.
I answered a question about the development of centralisation and royal authority throughout the middle Ages that you'll probably be interested in: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3juweq/how_did_royal_power_and_centralization_develop/