As another poster noted, anatomically modern humans have existed for upwards of 200,000 years. But the first instances of crop domestication and agriculture all occur within the last ~10,000 years or so. This is true even in populations that have been completely developmentally isolated for over 10,000 years in the Americas. Is there an explanation for this sudden, roughly simultaneous emergence of agriculture? Or have I framed the wrong question?
There's always room for discussion, but perhaps these previous topics will answer your inquiry.
Prehistory: Was humanity just wandering around for 10s if not 100s of thousands of years as hunter gatherers before agrarianism? by /u/itsallfolklore
And over at /r/AskAnthropology