If most of the American Indians died from disease, is it fair to say that the Europeans are responsible for their genocide?

by TheSheikYerbouti

If thousands of American Indians died at the hands of the Europeans and an estimated20-70 MILLION died due to disease, would it still be fair to say that the Europeans are responsible for their genocide?

It is the Europeans who brought over the disease that led to this genocide, yes. But it seems though that even if the Europeans came in peace the diseases that they carried would still have been deadly enough to wipe out the majority of the American Indian population.

So technically speaking, the discovery of The New World by the Europeans would have led to the disease based genocide of the American Indians regardless of whether they came in peace or not... Right? Or maybe not?

If someone could shed some light on this subject it would be greatly appreciated (Also, I apologize if the term "American Indian" is politically incorrect).

Searocksandtrees

Hopefully someone can drop by with a direct answer for you, but meanwhile, there are a few things you can read up on. First, this FAQ section:

Did the Europeans deliberately spread disease

Next up, it's important to understand what "genocide" means, and which types of actions fall under that definition. There is a FAQ section on this topic:

Native American Genocide

... and there have been a couple of more recent posts:

... and there is also a FAQ section on this subject on the /r/IndianCountry subreddit: