Can my professor's claim about modes of production in the ancient east and west be substantiated?

by HerpDerpBlake

One of common themes of the World Civ 1500-Present course I'm in is that from the onset of civilization, the east utilized collective property. The professor uses this as an explanation as to why state ownership is endemic to the east, also to hint that Maosim utilizes this ancient tendency.

By contrast, and attempting to explain the origins of capitalism/liberalism, he claims the west has always been based around private ownership.

I'm curious if there is much information to substantiate these claims, and although I don't mean to question the legitimacy of my professor and his research, I'm not totally convinced these theories are as important to explaining as much they're made out to. In short, if the modes of production of the ancient west and east offer any explanation to what we've been taught.

ThucydidesWasAwesome

Modes of Production is a very specific (Marxist) term. I'm curious, would you be willing to flesh out this idea a bit?

Is he referring specifically to the Asiatic Mode of Production as a valid theoretical framework?