I thought this would be worth asking because the only thread I've been able to find here is three years old. In it, /u/whitesock offers the hypothesis that the change was shaped by shifts in political power and the development of liberalism. But how well-accepted is this theory? Is there a consensus on the question?
I asked a very similar question not so long time ago and they gave me some really good answers. You might want to check it out
Credit to /u/vertexoflife for such an informative reply.
Can you show any studies that confirms that "the opposite is true"?