During the English and French Revolutions (or any other for that matter) why didn't their enemies invade at a time of vulnerability?

by The-MeroMero-Cabron

I'm currently listening to the "Revolutions" Podcast with Mike Duncan, which I highly recommend, and I was just wondering why no other country made an attempt to invade their enemy, as in the case of England and France? Is it because the invading force knew that a country in turmoil would unite to defeat them or is there any other reason?

ErzherzogKarl

Hello, Have a look at my previous post [here] (https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/54ub4v/how_guilty_was_marie_antoinette_how_did_foreign/d86ckx2) for a rundown on what prevented the Habsburg monarchy from properly prosecuting a war of aggression.