Why or how was there such a high demand for Asian and African goods in Europe when the continent was also extremely poor? So high that it warranted colonies to meet that demand between 1350-1700?

by [deleted]

[deleted]

thegreatdissembler

During the time frame you reference Europeans had only the Cape Colony in Africa. In Asia a few small bits of what is now Indonesia was Dutch, Spain had the Philippines and Portugal a few small areas. European powers had a much larger colonial foot print in the Western Hemisphere in 1700. Private trading companies under royal charter, notably the Dutch and British East India Companies, had trade depots and forts around the Indian Ocean but they were not colonies. There was not enough demand to warrant nations colonizing Africa and parts of Asia during the times you reference.