I'm reading the Story of the Middle Ages by Samuel Harding; in it the author always refers to 'Muslims' as 'Mohammedans'.
Is there any reason for this, or was it just a more common term used in 1901, when the book was published?
It was a relatively common term in the early 20th century, both popularly and in academia (e.g. Schacht's On the Origins of Muhammadan Jurisprudence). It has fallen into disfavor on the grounds that:
Moreover, outside of a historical reference or quotation I can't really think of any useful reason to use Muhammadan rather than Muslim. This is in contrast to other terms that might trip all three issues I raised above but that nonetheless continue to serve some descriptive or other purpose.