[deleted]
Obviously whites would've been the supreme, but seeing as Spain had more or less outlawed slavery everywhere except Cuba by the time most of the Spanish colonies revolted, I'm very curious as to the status of blacks socially.
No, it didn't. Slavery was legal throughout the Spanish colonial empire in the Americas until after independence in the case of the mainland and until the 1880s in the case of Cuba and Puerto Rico (I am being this specific because I can't speak to colonial possessions in Asia or Africa). The Spanish Cortes of 1810-1814 and of 1821-1823 both discussed the possibility of abolishing slavery. Neither enacted it.
One easy example illustrating how real slavery was during the mainland independence movements is the case of Venezuela, much of whose leadership was made up of slave owning Caracas planters, including Simon Bolivar. The main crop was cacao, to make chocolate.
I talk about life for black people in Cuba during the 19th century, before the independence wars, in more detail here. During the independence wars themselves (1868-1878, 1878-1879, 1895-1898) emancipated slaves and free blacks were the mainstay of the Cuban separatist guerrilla army. Several even got to high places in the officer corps, including several brothers of the Maceo family, with Antonio Maceo being the best known of them.
Indigenous peoples had been essentially wiped out by then, except for some indigenous peoples from the Yucatan peninsula who were brought as indentured servants or slaves during the 19th century. It is likely that an important part of the Cuban population of today has some degree of indigenous ancestry, though in most cases quite low, but they had certainly been the victims of cultural genocide by the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
Sorry I can't go into more detail on other parts of Hispanic America. Race itself is already a bit out of my wheelhouse and my knowledge of race outside of Cuba is even more spotty.