Was Neville Chamberlain's strategy of appeasement proven to be correct?

by ykickamoocow111

Chamberlain has really been given the short end of the stick historically but I do wonder if his strategy was historically proven to be correct.

I am definitely not a historian but I have heard that one example of this was the RAF as they really needed the extra year to be ready as the Spitfire had not really been introduced in 1938 and the Hurricane was only used in limited numbers. Compare that to the Luftwaffe the Messerschmitt Me 109 which was fully operational in 1938 so if a war happened a year earlier the RAF would not have been ready and the Luftwaffe would have been.

This is one example I can think of (and it may not be correct) but are there any other examples of the war being delayed a year actually helping the British over the Germans and thus suggesting Chamberlain's appeasement strategy was the correct one, and that if the British went to war in 1938 the outcome would have been worse than if they went to war in 1939?

Thanks.

true_new_troll