Camille Paglia claims that a "mania for the androgynous" is characteristic of the pre-collapse stages of civilisations, pointing to Greece and the Roman Empire as examples, and argues that parallels can be drawn with today's transgender movement. How true is her assertion?

by durhamcastle

Were the last days of Rome and Greece marked by mass societal androgyny in the arts and beyond? If so, is this a phenomenon restricted to classical civilisations or can it be identified elsewhere?

LukeInTheSkyWith

Please, edit out the link (you will be asked by the mods soon enough). I am not discouraging new anwers, but /u/AsiaExpert addressed this recently here and I think it's a great post.

AsiaExpert

I recently answered this question with an example of Japan, which /u/LukeInTheSkyWith was so kind to read and share.

If you have any further questions, feel free to ask!

chocolatepot

As /u/LukeintheSkyWith noted, we would ask you to remove the link. To quote /u/sunagainstgold in the previous thread,

We don't allow links to hate-filled content. Could you please edit the post to remove the link to the video? You can make it clear what video you're referring to so people can find it, and you're much more likely to get a response if you include a description of the specific points that interest you (you do a great job of that right now). Just please kill the link.

Thanks!