The US practically ruled over countries like Japan, Germany & South Korea after World War 2. How much autonomy do these countries have now? If they did achieve a level of autonomy what events led to this relinquishing of power by the US?

by Squareintelligence

I understand with South Korea the US can essentially use the males as military assets whenever they please so maybe they are under US rule but what about Germany and Japan who are bigger world players?

Like if out of the blue the US told Japan to apologize for the comfort women issue will they follow?

Or if they told Germany they had to reinstate the military draft will they do it?

If this isn't the case what events led to the loosening of the leash by US powers?

ivymikey

I understand with South Korea the US can essentially use the males as military assets whenever they please so maybe they are under US rule but what about Germany and Japan who are bigger world players?

What? South Korea is an independent and sovereign nation. There are 28,500 US forces stationed in Korea and they can both a) leave at any time and b) be forced to leave by the Korean government at any time, as per the agreement between the two countries. Neither of these situations has occurred because the status quo benefits both countries. The only time that South Korean forces would fall under US military control is if war broke out on the peninsula and even that is scheduled to be changed by 2020 (to be fair, the turnover of wartime control has been postponed numerous times).

As far as Japan and Germany, the US/Allies occupied these countries until 1952 and 1955, respectively. The Treaty of San Fransisco was signed in September 1951 and went into force in April of 1952. In it, Japan accepted the Far East tribunal results, compensation for POW's and laborers was allocated, and Japan's sovereignty was returned. The Bonn-Paris conventions did the same thing for West Germany in 1955. However, with East Germany under Soviet control, it wasn't until 1990 with the Treaty on the Final Settlement with Respect to Germany when Germany was reunited and fully independent from the US, UK, France, and the USSR.

Korea was rid of occupying forces even earlier - 1948. Korea had been occupied by Japan for 35-50 years (depending on how one wants to measure) so it wasn't occupied as a vanquished enemy. The plan that Roosevelt had proposed was a trusteeship under UN auspices to help Korea rebuild. It didn't pan out that way though. Instead, UN and Soviet leaders couldn't agree on nationwide elections in 1948, so the North and South held independent elections and created separate governments, both of which got their respective sponsors out of their countries by the end of 1948/early '49.

Long story short, no, the US has no more power over these countries than they do over any other country.