Is the United States the only colonial empire that deliberately intended to grant independence to its colonies after a certain period?

by raori921

I'm from the Philippines, and whenever I read the history of US colonialism there, most sources say that the Americans promised the Filipinos independence after a very specific timeline. They said this very early in their occupation—early 1900s, when the whole period lasted from 1898–1946.

And they were pretty close too. From 1935 onward, the plan was to release the Filipinos within 10 years, and despite the World War II interruption by the Japanese, the Americans managed to set their colony "free" without much of a schedule lag—independence was scheduled around 1945, so as it was actually granted in 1946, they were off by a year or less!

This is not something I've read other colonial empires doing, whether the British, the French, the Dutch or Portuguese, and I'm not sure if the US did the same with its other colonies—Puerto Rico, for example, is still a colony today, did the US never intend to let them go after a set period? (Cuba, on the other hand, seems to have been intentionally let go, although the US quickly supplanted formal independence with an informal virtual monopoly on their economy, plus direct military control via Guantanamo.)

TL;DR: Is it only the US that planned its colonies' independence, or did the British ever plan to free India after a certain period, or the French likewise with their colonies, or any other colonial power with theirs?

xiaorobear

Followup question: Two other instances of something similar off the top of my head interestingly both also began in 1898— first Britain forcing China to grant them a rent-free lease for Hong Kong that would expire after 99 years, and then Germany copying them, getting a 99-year lease for the Jiaozhou Bay concession (though Germany only controlled it up through WWI, then Japan took over).

Were these along with OP's example of the Philippines part of a broader shift in international attitudes towards colonialism at the end of the 19th century? Or did Britain and Germany at the time just assume they'd never actually have to give the land back, while the US/Philippines relationship was more unique?