Spain and Castilian Spanish remain heavily influenced by Arabic in their toponyms (Andalucía from Al-Andalus, Guadalquívir from Wadi Al-Kabir, Gibraltar from Jebel Tariq), politics (alcalde from al-qadi, alcázar from al-qasr), agriculture (aceituna from az-zeytuna), and even in its colloquialisms (ojalá from wa'sha'llah)
What was the attitude of the ruling classes and the clergy to this Arabic influence following the Reconquista? Was any effort made to remove Arabic vocabulary from Spanish? What was the attitude of the Inquisition towards people using Arabic vocabulary? How did the Arabic influence survive the Expulsion of the Moriscos in 1609?
The Moriscos had begrudgingly accepted baptism under duress and responded by forming a distinct, seperate community, remaining tied to Islamic languages, dress, and traditions. Tensions between the State and the Moriscos of Granada reached their climax in the 1560’s. The suspicion and disdain directed at the Moriscos grew relative to the danger from Turkey, and became overwhelming when the Ottomans besieged Malta in 1565. In response, Pedro de Dezra (President of Audiencia) announced a new policy in 1567 requiring Moriscos to learn Spanish within 3 years. From then onwards it would be illegal to read, write, or speak Arabic. Moriscos were forced to abandon native costumes, Moorish names, customs traditions and ceremonies or even kneel in baths as it provided an opportunity to practice rituals prescribed in the Koran. The Holy Roman Empire wanted to make them Spanish Catholic, denationalizing the Moriscos. The failing in this is that authorities believed it could be done by government decree. After a century of religious unrest, all Moriscos were expelled in 1609. The influence survived because it had permeated the culture.