If Hitler's reasoning behind putting Jews in concentration was to separate them from what he considered an ethnically "pure" aryan race, than why didn't he immediately begin killing French and polish citizens after capturing their territories? I understand that nazism does not employ logic in its ideology, but this seems counterproductive to his end goal of creating living space for the lebenstraum.
To understand this, let's have a look at the circumstances of Hitler's rise first. Hitler came to power in 1933. At that time, Germany was suffering: Germany lost the WW and was supposed to pay tremendous amounts of reparations. This let to an inflation in the 20's, with a hyperinflation in 1923. Some people could barely afford their daily bread anymore, many had to sell their houses and lost everything they had. But: whenever there's a loser, there's also a winner. It was those who bought houses for average market prices and then, a few weeks later, were "debt free" because they could pay the agreed upon sum that, weeks later, wasn't worth more than a loaf of bread. People considered this to be an injustice, but couldn't do anything about it. It was a hard way back to "normal". Then, in 1929, the stock market crashed, and quite a few of people lost everything - again. The great depression followed.
In a way, people demanded to find someone responsible for their suffering, and Hitler found a perfect scapegoat: the Jews. Jews often worked in trading or renowned banks and thus were perceived as "rich" and "winners of the inflation". By prioritizing to deport Jews and taking away all their belongings ("giving back" houses to the Aryan population at a discount price), Hitler could gain some popularity and be perceived as a "Robin Hood"-type national hero. By being perceived as a "national hero" / the good guy and giving people what they longed for, he was able to secure public support for his politics.
Source: Adolf Hitler, "Mein Kampf", Vol 1. chapt. 5 & 7.