As I understand, the Black Plague ended feudalism in Western Europe and started serfdom in Eastern Europe, so the classic "serf/peasant in a manor" type feudalism only existed in Western Europe during the Medieval Ages.
However, Christian Spain was a frontier society of sorts and focused on the resettlement of Christians/expulsion of Muslims which doesn't fit nicely with the idea of serfdom. Unlike neighboring countries, it didn't claim descent from the Carolingian Empire or it's administrative reforms.
Speculatively, feudalism might have been stronger in Catalonia, which was Frankish territory for a time, but this the nature of my question and part of what I am asking.
PS/Edit: I have no idea how this got flaired as 20th century black history nor how to remove it, help is appreciated. Thank you!
Slavery in Northern Europe ended in the 11th century, replaced by the system of serfs- they found it a more practical system.
To understand those times in Spain, you have to look very hard, for much of what you will find will be politically incorrect. The Muslims AND Jews were expulsed, but the second option was to convert to Christianity, which many if not most Jews took advantage of.
The Jews were very wealthy, and now as Christians had to the station to take advantage of many economic investments that had otherwise been closed to them, as well as marrying into wealthy old Christian families.
The Spanish Inquisitions were begun not to persecute the Jews, but to ferret out those "converted" Jews who were secretly practicing Judaism and being Christians only out of convenience.
These "conversos" or Marranos, were the sparkplugs to the discovery of the New World, and the subsequent exploitation of it by the importation of Africans as slaves to work in large sugar plantations in Brazil and other countries.
How "standard" Spanish feudalism fits in with all this I am no expert in, but the main dynamic of those times is how I outlined it.