In ww2, especially in some campaigns like Operation Blue, why they did not integrate allies forces in their ranks with German equipment, instead of keeping them independent?

by pier4r

fail in the title: "why they" = "why the germans"

I often read or listen that the Germans were looking down to their allies because those were not so good equipped or commanded. Why, in crucial campaigns like Operation Blue (1942, it ends with Stalingrad), they did not just incorporated them giving them their equipment?

In other words, why they did not ask their allies just for manpower, and the rest would have been made by the German army?

Rittermeister

I don't mean to be abrupt, but the German Wehrmacht struggled at all points during the war to properly equip itself. Second and third-line German formations were heavily reliant on captured, often obsolete or obsolescent equipment, such as Czech tanks and light machine guns, French howitzers and light tanks, Russian 76.2mm guns, et al, until the very end of the war. The German units that prosecuted Case Blue were themselves understrength in men and heavy equipment. This pattern would hold true for the remainder of the war; the German army never again reached the same levels of strength and readiness that they went into Barbarossa with. Trying to equip hundreds of thousands of Romanians or Hungarians with modern equipment was simply beyond their capability. They did provide limited quantities of material assistance to their allies, but this took the form of a few dozen tanks or assault guns, not the tens of thousands of howitzers and anti-tank guns and anti-aircraft guns and suchlike that these nations were critically short on.