I'm just thinking....everyone says that Russia, France, and the UK just drew up the agreement by drawing lines in the map (considering rivers heavily I believe) without considering ethnic groups, tribal affiliation, religious denomination, and so on. Did they not possibly do this intentionally in some places to help ensure regional weakness in the future? That they perhaps on purpose drew the map thinking they'd rule over it now and that a planned regional instability would be intended consequence of their choices?
I already asked this question and the answer was pretty good https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/57zknh/how_accurate_is_it_to_say_that_sykespicot_borders/d8wgc9c
E: u/Tiddums