Why were the colonies of empires not distributed to the aristocracy?

by Debenham

In England we have countless dukes, counts and barons. Why were the colonies not included in this aristocracy? Or in other words, why was there not a duke of nova Scotia or a count of Jamaica? I could could understand why the arrangements with Indian princes made it impossible there but why not elsewhere?

TheBattenburglar

So one reason would be the fact that those doing the initial colonising/land grabbing were Companies. Take the early colonies in America for instance: there were two different Virginia Companies which had the crown' s permission to go and claim land in the virgin territory. These companies were chartered by James I but they were owned by private stock holders. So they were interested in the commercial value of the land, not in setting themselves up as New World aristocracy.