My teacher states that the west (Europe and the Middle East) had advanced more scientifically then the East (India and China) starting around the middle ages due to differences in religion. How true is this?

by WhyDidYouHave2DoThat

To be more specific my teacher states that Indian religions (Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism) as well as Confucianism believed that God/Gods existed as part of all things, while Abrahamic religions (Judaism, Islam, Christianity) believed that man was imperfect and that understanding the physical world would allow them to understand god's mind.

Swordee

This is unfalsifiable. There's no way to establish arguments on either side. So if they are suggesting it as a statement of fact, ask them to show you the evidence for it.

Remember that correlation doesn't equal causation.

Also, it's worth asking them to attempt to define what scientifically advanced means as it will mean different things to different people.