Did the American populace/society have generalized disconnect from Jewish victims of the Holocaust prior to Pearl Harbor due to distance/cultural differences?

by [deleted]

[deleted]

angrynerdist84

I believe the answer is no, but not for the reasons you think. Although Nazi antisemitism was known (both propaganda and violence) no one prior to 1941 conceived of the mass killings. And even though there were camps, they were prior to 1941, not designed for mass killings even though many people died in them. It was more of death by labor. I think by 1942 the Germans began to build camps specifically designed for mass killing. One of my professors had stated that just because you hear one story of German soldiers killing a group of Jews didn't mean that all of them were doing it. Overall there were hints but nothing to pin-point it.