Out of all the Romano-Celtic regions which were conquered by Germanic peoples after the fall of Rome, why was England the only one that now speaks a Germanic language?

by Trashcan__Man
Anon4comment

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/33n69a/how_much_was_vulgar_latin_spoken_in_roman_and/?st=J1GS0KOJ&sh=b50076f4

This previous post by u/marbanasin might be helpful.

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4bhnn6/were_the_anglosaxon_invasions_a_catastrophic/?st=J1GS49FE&sh=9aff160b

This post by u/haakon_vii provides a little more insight into the whole conquest.

Although this doesn't help with understanding the impact on nations other than England, I guess it's something to read while a historian warms up his books and drafts an answer.