When did Article 1, Section 2 of the constitution referring to the number of reps per constituent start being essentially ignored, and why?

by [deleted]

[deleted]

JeffCon

I'm not a historian, but I am seeking clarification from OP: In what way is the portion of text you cited being ignored? The clause says that the number shall not exceed one representative per 30,000 people -- which, as you correctly observe, it does not.

What am I missing?