Did the British end their colonization of India because Gandhi almost starved himself to death? Does Hitler have anything to do with it? And if WWII had rendered the British empire bankrupt, wouldn't it have been more reasonable to stay given the colony's resources?
Gandhi had very little to do with it, to be honest. Hitler indirectly played a role in ending the British role, as you have mentioned, by emptying the British treasuries. India was under colonial rule for nearly two hundred years at that point, and most of the resources were already depleted. It was a combination of these two reasons, as well as other underlying political motives that I mention in another post (https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/65rt0f/in_what_ways_was_britains_rushed_withdrawal_from/dgjjcii/?context=3) that ended the British rule in India.