During the late 16th century, Europeans accidentally spread devastating plagues to Native Americans. Is there any evidence that the Norse caused similar plagues from their contact with Native Americans in the 11th century?

by AttalusPius

And if there was no transmission of widespread plagues by the Norse, why? What was the difference between the Norse and the Spanish, which only caused one of the groups to transmit plagues?

retarredroof

There is a whole section on disease and the Columbian Exchange in our FAQs. Look for entries by u/anthropology_nerd