In 'Hitler's Table Talk' Hitler claims that after the 30 years war polygamy was tolerated due to the lack of men. What's the evidence for this claim?

by [deleted]

This is from the book "Hitler's Table Talk", in the section of the 1st March 1942, evening.

Edit, I found two previous answers on the topic, though if anyone has any better answers than those given there, especially about where Hitler would have gotten the idea from, I'd be interested to learn more:

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1v8hx1/was_polygamy_widespread_in_europe_after_the/ https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4fn53b/according_to_steve_jones_polygamy_was_legal_in/

sunagainstgold

This thread suggests the origin of the myth after the Thirty Years' War from the point of view of critiquing a Wiki article (which has since been edited). The scholars cited both trace the claim back to a 1790 popular article, point out that there would not have been an emergency law body to pass any laws during the supposed time frame, and suggest the 1790 people were misreading a draft or mistaking one type of document for another.