Why there was so much European aversion to France ceding Belgium during the 18th and 19th century?

by znihilist

I was notified that my question wasn't clear.

So to clarify:

After the end of the War of the Spanish succession, the control of the Spanish Netherlands went to Austria. My understanding is that they didn't really want it, however, there was an intent on not letting France take over. Am I wrong on the reluctance of Austria and the intent on not letting France take over? If the answer is yes, then where does it originate from?

breecher

Could you elaborate on your question?

France only held the areas that later became Belgium for a relatively brief period during the Revolutionary Wars, long before Belgium became an independent country, so it is difficult to identify which "European aversion" you are referring to.