How and why did a great deal of Dante's "Inferno" and Milton's "Paradise Lost" become a part of Christian canon for some Christian groups when much of their content is non-Biblical?

by demuratrix
stingrays_are_fish

What Christian group do you mean? I've never heard of either of those texts being canonical for any denomination.

Edit: I read the rules and I'm not sure if questions for clarification are acceptable comments, so I'm sorry if they aren't!

If you're asking why they were influential in depiction of hell, that's a question that has been asked before:

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3es3zw/where_does_most_of_our_imagery_and_lore_of_the/

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1fk2n1/how_did_dante_alighieris_the_divine_comedy_change/