(Sorry... Couldn't help myself)

Seriously though, as I understand, in recent decades medievalists have completely upended the traditional hierarchical model of the middle ages known as "Feudalism", leading to the pithy saying any long time reader here has probably seen that "Feudalism Doesn't Real".

But what does that mean for our understanding of the western European peasantry? In the laymen's understanding at least the idea of serfdom is so tied in with the idea of "Feudalism", so is that also not a term we use any more? Or does the disappearance of the traditional "Feudal" model really mean a new understanding of the upper parts, and the serfs are still, well, serfs?