How did French (which derives its name from the invading Germanic Franks) develop into a Romance Language while English (which derives its name from the invading Germanic Angles and Saxons) develop into a primarily Germanic language?

by Kingca

And most, if not all, of English's latin roots came from the French, ever since the Norman conquest of 1066. Which just seems even more peculiar to me. How did a Germanic tribe invade in a different direction and have its language morph enough into a latin-based language in just 500-600 years? Why did England retain its Germanic roots seemingly a lot better? Who influenced the Franks to speak vulgar latin?

Kingca

You know, I think I was able to answer my own question. Something tells me it has to do with the much higher population of Latin speaking peoples in Gaul, therefore influencing the Franks, while Old English was influenced by the Celtic languages spoken in the British Isles.

But if anyone can chime in and expand on my question, that'd be great!