Currently reading Homage to Catalonia, and I just finished the chapter in which Orwell describes the Spanish political situation among the Republicans. I realize that given his closeness to the situation, he isn't the most unbiased source. Are there any major discrepancies between his version of it and the facts? Thanks.
Edit: The biggest thing I would like to is whether or not the PSUC was actually attempting to suppress the revolution taking place in Spain at the time.
Recently there was a interesting article in the Guardian about this:
Amendments to what he had written in Homage to Catalonia were reflected in his writings after later conversations in London with the exiled Spanish republican prime minister, Dr Juan Negrín. In answer to his questions about the wider issues of the civil war, Negrín explained why the republic had been forced to turn to the Soviet Union as the only great power prepared to sell weaponry. He also outlined the problems of trying to fight a war while dealing with “the motley conglomerate of incompatible parties, labour unions and dissident groups, and also the frequently self-appointed, largely unconstitutional, local and regional ‘governments’”. Negrín concluded that Orwell was “idealistic and weltfremd [unworldly]”.