Did a socialist/communist revolution ever actually do anything to address the wealth gap?

by jefferz89

I was reading briefly about the end of Apartheid in South Africa, and how the USSR had supported the ANC and many people were disappointed when the end of Apartheid didn't herald in a socialist/communist revolution as well, because in their eyes the social and racial inequality did not change, especially economically. This got me thinking, as there are plenty of countries that have gone through socialist or communist revolutions that prior to said revolution had a wealthy elite, but in my admittedly limited knowledge it seems like when this happens instead of going from the few to the many the wealth just goes from the few to some other few and the many kinda get the shaft. It seems like a pretty big selling point for socialism/communism is that, with the workers sharing the means of production, the distribution of wealth should be at least -more- even, if not totally even. Has it ever actually worked out like that?

8BallTiger

(Unfortunately I'm about to head off to work so I won't be able to give a detailed answer straight away) If you consider the actions of workers and farmers in Republican Spain during the Spanish Civil War to be a revolution, then Anthony Beevor's The Battle for Spain has some good details on that. Once I get back from work I'll edit this with info from the book.