Did Winston Churchill intentionally starve India, leading to the deaths of ~3million people?

by wigsternm

In the most recent episode of Revisionist History Malcolm Gladwell makes the case that during the Bengal famine Winston Churchill withheld food that could easily have broken the famine in favor of stockpiling it for European use. Gladwell's main source seems to be Madhusree Mukherjee's book Churchill's Secret War.

My question is whether or not this was starving India an intentional decision by Winston Churchill? Was the need for a European stockpile a warranted fear that went terribly wrong or was the decision more along the lines of "screw those guys, we've got ours"?

jja2850a

Not to discourage any additonal posts, but you may find this answer submitted by u/RuinEleint a bit helpful towards answering your question:

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/54pp0w/is_there_evidence_to_support_that_the_british/?ref=search_posts