This is a sensitive topic, so I want to make it clear that I have no bad intentions. I don't have an opinion on Armenian Genocide, I know that my country (Poland) recognizes it as a real genocide, but recently I met a Turk who described me the other side of the story. Now I just want to put everything together.

"Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide" from 1951 defines genocide as:

"In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such : (...) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; (...)"

So he explained to me that Turkey basically acknowledge that these people died. Ottoman Empire supposedly tried to relocate them to Syria so they wouldn't be helping Russians, but they planned it very poorly, so it wasn't intentional - it was rather a logistic f*ck up, so there are no sufficient circumstances to call it a genocide.

From my limited knowledge of history I know, that Turkey's logistic was really bad during the Great War - case in point is the amount of their own soldiers who died in this region, going to war with Russia, unprepared for the winter.

Now my question is - do we have any proofs that this catastrophe was intentional? Like orders, documents? Or maybe West acknowledged it as a genocide only based on the educated guess? If so, then how educated guess that was?