I know the nature of colonial chattel slavery was different from the slavery practiced in the Roman Empire, but I find it hard to believe that people just flat out stopped owning other people for 1000 years, yet I never see it discussed in reference to that time period.
Hi there -- while not discouraging further answers, you may be interested in these threads:
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6aqa2e/panel_ama_slaves_and_slavers/
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/30hc8n/what_are_the_different_types_of_slavery/