If this is in the wrong section please move it as I was unsure as to where to put it.
I watched Dem Gov-Va Terry McAuliffe passionately speak about ex cons being able to vote in his state tonight, and it occurred to me how crazy this whole concept is to me. Not that they can vote, but that fact they would not be allowed to for some reason.
The idea that full blown citizens of a country who have paid their assigned debt back to society as issued by both, legal, and members of his own peers from THAT country indefinitely and no longer have any voice in elections boggles my mind.
I apologize, as a Canadian, this is just assumed, even our citizens in jail vote through the mail system. I in no way wish to start a huge political debate or make it seem I am looking down on the way American policies are carried out within your country.
What I am curious about however is, has this always been the case since the beginning or was this something that was enacted relatively recently? Is this a still heavily supported law and have there been polls over however long this has been in place to show a continued support of this law?
What was the major contributing factor into implementing a law such as this that, at some point, a majority of not just the house but the senate unanimously approved and didn't raise an eyebrow by a president that could have potentially veto'd such legislature?
I'd please like facts on this, and not political rhetoric if possible as this impacts MILLIONS of individuals if I am understanding this law correctly and am genuinely curious.
While I can't speak to the historical aspect of your question, I can clarify that their isn't a single law determining the eligibility of voters. In the US voting rights are handled at the state level which means that there is a hodgepodge of voting laws vis-a-vis felon voting rights. Only nine states in the US do not automatically restore voting rights to felons upon completion of their sentence. Two states do not restrict voting rights at all. The remainder automatically restore voting rights upon completion of their sentences, though how that is defined varies with some states also including parole and probation as part of the sentence. Of the nine states that do not automatically restore rights those rights may be restored by governor or court action.
As I stated I am not qualified to answer the history of how the US came to its present situation regarding voting rights and you are correct that that there is a socio-political aspect to the issue that is beyond the purview of this sub. I just need to point out that the idea of convicted felons losing the right to vote across the country as a blanket rule is incorrect and how the laws are applied (and their history) very much depends on the state.