in 1494, only two years after columbus, Spain and Portugal (with help from the pope) signed a treaty dividing the world into two zones of colonization, but at this time the new world was still thought to be part of Asia.
It seems odd to me, if they actually though that this was the trade route they where looking for i would have thought that trading would be the firsts thing own their mind not colonization. after all a fast trade route with china is immensely valuable and pays off quickly, but a colony is risky and is unlikely to bring back profits for years.
how could it be that they originally wanted a trade, but in two years they had shifted completely to colonization?
maybe i am missing something here, could someone explain?
The Treaty of Tordesillas was about claiming possession (which is a something slightly different then colonization) and included a very important provision for regulating - well banning - ships to sail and trade in others respective areas.
Quote from the translated document:
Item, the said representatives promise and affirm by virtue of the powers aforesaid**, that from this date no ships shall be despatched**-namely as follows: the said King and Queen of Castile, Leon, Aragon, etc., for this part of the bound, and its eastern side, on this side the said bound, which pertains to the said King of Portugal and the Algarves, etc.; nor the said King of Portugal to the other part of the said bound which pertains to the said King and Queen of Castile, Aragon, etc.-for the purpose of discovering and seeking any mainlands or islands, or for the purpose of trade, barter, or conquest of any kind.
So it did not just divide the world into two zones of "colonization" but two zones of influence and rule which included right to colonize if wanted but also right to trade (or to deny trade) and tax and similar provisions.
So they did want trade in the beginning, and they didn't switch to colonization. They just made a treaty that covered their respective rights which included both