The Holodomor, the famine in the Ukraine in the early 1930's, has been generally described as deliberate, and in certain countries, as a genocide. However, I've heard it said that there are some who challenge that view. My question is this: To what extent, if any, was the Holodomor a deliberate act of mass murder by the Soviet government, and was it, in fact, a genocide.
We have some older threads which touch on this topic, one which still sees some debate as to specific details. I would point to this thread with several responses - particular note to the discussion between /u/facepoundr and /u/rusoved, and this one from /u/tenminutehistory.