Before 1600, spices were a standard ingredient in European cuisine. How come later, spices disappeared from European cuisines other than the French?

by dissonantloos

The foundation of the modern French haute cuisine was laid mid seventeenth century. One of its major characteristics was how it used no spices in contrast to the previous centuries, yet this was also the era when the Dutch VOC conquered and exploited the Spice Islands. Where did all the spices go? Did other countries, like the Netherlands, keep using spices? Why?

dissonantloos

I also cross-posted this question to /r/AskFoodHistorians, here.