Since apparently Feudalism never existed, does that mean that "Personal" politics weren't ever a thing?

by [deleted]

By personal politics I mean politics dominated by the bonds different men had to each other (For example, in a society dominated by personal politics the reason the Duchy of Burgundy would be part of France is not because it is so by law but because the Duke of Burgundy swore loyalty to the King of France or something, and the reason the Duchy of Burgundy is big is because the different lords of the region known as Burgundy are loyal to the lord who calls himself Duke of Burgundy etc.)

Sorry if that's too confusing, I'm kinda drunk right now

Sehnsucht__

You may want to participate here, where we're trying to clarify the matter a bit. It's a good question.

practeerts

I'm confused at the outset. Where did you get the idea that feudalism never existed? I don't feel like I fully understand what your question is about here.