Why do "Western" foods combine ingredients of similar flavor, while "Eastern" foods combine ingredients of different/contrasting flavors? Or am I wrong about this?

by Randomname64

I read a Gizmodo article that said that Eastern foods normally have ingredients that do not overlap in flavor, while Western foods do.

Has this been true generally or is this modern? If it is modern (or at least of a recent vintage), how did it come about? Or is the article wrong?

Splendidissimus

There is a neat sub called /r/AskFoodHistorians that might have answers if you don't find any here.