Wikipedia claims that ancient western europe experienced a bigger population growth than china (about 0.1% annualy from 1300 BCE to 300 CE) while china experienced an annual population growth of 0.1% or bigger only starting from 1 CE, how is this possible if chinese people could farm rice ?

by [deleted]

[deleted]

cee2027

The simple answer is that rice did not become the primary staple of China until the south became more populous in the 9th-12th centuries CE. Before that, northern crops like millet and sorghum were the most common staples, as the north was the political and economic center of China.

Cambridge History of China, Vol 5, part 2: The Five Dynasties and Sung China