Why did the Romans switch from the old phalanx system to the maniples and when did they do that? And how were the Romans able to defeat the Macedonian phalanx? | AskHistorians Archive Observer

Why did the Romans switch from the old phalanx system to the maniples and when did they do that? And how were the Romans able to defeat the Macedonian phalanx?

by Make_Krieg_Not_Liebe

Title is pretty self explanatory. I'm asking this because I have not been able to find a definite answer on the Internet about these subjects since there is some conflicting information and different points of view.

my_toesies

I'll just link to a better answer than I'd come up with from /u/grashnak. Essentially, during the Samnite wars is when they began moving away from the phalanx. Also, the maniple system was more flexible, allowing the Romans to better take advantage of terrain and changes in the flow of battle.