Hey there, just wondering, during the English Civil War of the 1640s were British tenant farmers/commoners exposed to something which after returning to the Stuarts reign would of caused dislike? I hope you understand my question, and thanks!
Edit: In addition, I know its a bit off topic, but in the English Civil War I understand religion played a large factor but is there evidence to suggest that: The civil war gave way to Catholicism in English society?
Can you please rephrase your question? It sounds like you are asking is if the common Englishman enjoyed greater liberty during the course of the Civil Wars than during the periods preceding and following the conflict.
For the second question, most historians now agree that religion was the most important or perhaps most fundamental cause of the conflict. There are a lot of works on this, but I would suggest Michael Braddick's God's Fury, England's Fire, which would be the most accessible, albeit longest introduction. Conrad Russell's Causes of the English Civil War set the standard for discussions of the war's origins. An easier introduction to the writing on the Civil War would be chapter 2 in Ronald Hutton's, Debates in Stuart History - which is also a personal favorite. The relevant sections in Kishlansky's Monarchy Transformed and Morrill's Stuart Britain: A Very Short Introduction are also reliable. If you would like more information on the role of religion in the causes and execution of the Civil Wars, I would be happy to oblige; just let me know what you are looking for (Such as, the rise of sectarianism, the role of Catholicism, what's a puritan, etc.)