Around the time the Declaration of independence was written, was there debate as to the level of firearms that people should be able to own?

by [deleted]

[deleted]

jschooltiger
uncovered-history

So I'd like to start by explaining a few things right off the bat. The concept of "gun control" debate, as we know it today, did not exist in America during the 18th century. Gun control, as it developed through a series of laws and Supreme Court decisions handed down through the 19th and 20th centuries. While I have some knowledge of these laws and histories, I am no where near as capable of addressing them, so I will refrain from doing so.

I will address a couple of your points. You mention that there were "more than just rifles" in the 18th century, and that is entirely true. I'll address this concept of using cannons since you specifically referenced it. The idea of trying to prevent individual ownership of cannons is not addressed by any of the Founders, at least not in any of the major historical accounts. It also would not be practical because cannons were not just largely expensive, but almost impossible to come by even for militias or for the Continental Army. Most of the artillery used in the early days of the war came from the American victory at Fort Ticonderoga, where an American militia was able to seize British artillery from the fort that would later be used by the Continental Army. It should be unsurprising that the founders and American gentry did not discuss this at all since they were rare and nearly impossible to purchase privately.

As to the creation of the second amendment itself (written 15 years after the Declaration of Independence was written), well it fell under a completely different set of circumstances than what you are assuming. As I wrote in this post the second amendment of the Bill of Rights was created in order to ensure that American politicians and American gentry could call up private citizens into a militia if a radicalized rebellion ever started. This was important to them because these types of rebellions and uprisings happened all over the United States during this period and the only way to put them down (since America lacked a standing Army and most places did not have anything resembling a police force) was to have militias put them down.

Again, the fear for the gentry was not over an individual who might commit murder since communities were pretty self-sufficient with prosecuting their own murderers. The fear was having uprisings popping up around the country and not having a way to quell them.

Please let me know if you have any follow ups.

jschooltiger

Hi there, the mod-team has decided to approve this post, but we'd like to remind any potential commenters that discussion of events after 1997 is strictly prohibited here, as is soapboxing/discussion of modern politics. We will ban people who break that rule.

Also, before we get a flood of corrections: The Second Amendment modifies the U.S. Constitution, not the Declaration of Independence.

Thanks!