OP is not a pedo btw, I ask this because I was reading the KJV bible (I'm mormon and it's sunday) and I came across 1 Corinthians 6:9 and it says:
"9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind," (1 Corinthians 6:9 KJV)
I wondered what it meant by "nor effeminate" (Because women are effeminate, obviously) and it had a cross reference next to 'effeminate' and the cross reference column says that an alternate translation from the Greek of 'effeminate' was 'Catamites'.
I didn't know what a Catamite was so I googled it and apparently it was the term, in the context of ancient greece, given to a boy who was used by a man for the purpose of anal sex.
I then learned that the exact term is called "pederasty" and that it was common in many parts of the ancient world and that it was even involved in Greco Paganism via a boy named "Ganymede", quoting from the mythology:
"[Ganymedes] was the loveliest born of the race of mortals, and therefore the gods caught him away to themselves, to be Zeus' wine-pourer, for the sake of his beauty, so he might be among the immortals."
— Homer, Iliad, Book XX, lines 233-235.
All of this made just messed with me so hard, How was this practice considered so normal? How was it so normal that even had a mythological person that was a little boy used for butt-sex?
I get that the Bible isn't so much better about stuff we in the [current year] consider revolting:
young child marriages between men and girls
incest, such as two daughters getting their old father drunk so they can have sex with him so that they may "preserve his seed"
stoning people to death
polygamy (though being mormon, my recent ancestors participated in it lol)
deity approved genocide
So on and so forth, But to me, I just can't imagine why the cornholing of little boys was considered a normal practice, so normal that even Zeus practices it, when we today view it as abuse and disgusting
Explain to me the logic behind how they viewed this practice then and now, and how this practice evolved to appear revolting and deplorable to the majority of people now?
This is only really tangentially related, but this thread has a fantastic, must-read writeup on same-sex relations (which were generally pederastic) by /u/PaxOttomanica in the Islamic world/Persianate culture up into the modern era that might shed some light on the Middle Eastern aspect: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4r17fc/what_lead_to_the_ottoman_empire_decriminalizing/
I've heard that the practice of this occurs...
OP, I've temporarily removed your post, because this part of your editorial is spilling over the line into current events, and soapboxing. Kindly remove this section, then message the moderators for review and reinstatement. (That is, don't simply reply to me: I'll be offline)