i know the archaic term refers to the word "wife" to mean "woman" not "married woman", and the term fishwife generally meant a woman who sold fish, coming from fishing parents. but since a fishwife is not necessarily married, does that mean that they also fished the fish themselves? im curious because fishing is basically an aquatic form of hunting, and hunting was a historically male occupation, plus i haven't personally found any information going into specifics. as for the relevant time period id say anything before the eighteen hundreds.
So, I can tell you that in early modern Germany and Poland, salt-water fishing from boats was pretty exclusively a male occupation, as were nearly all the other directly nautical trades. The female family members of coastal fishermen pretty much exclusively stayed ashore, there they sold the day's catch, helped process the catch (gutting, fileting, drying, salting, etc), to a lesser extent helped in routine maintenance like mending nets and sails. Plus, of course, cooking meals, chopping wood, hauling water, and the thousand and one other forms of labor needed for to provide sustenance, shelter, and clothing to the members a pre-industrial household.
Further inland, the situation is a little fuzzier -- much of Northern Europe at this time still had robust freshwater fisheries producing eels, salmon, pike, and carp. Carp, in particular, were commonly fished from small village ponds where they were raised as a source of cheap protein. On inland waterways, fishing tended to be more a seasonal occupation than a full-time job; there are exceptions on larger waterways like the Rhine, but that's the general trend in my understanding.
Prior to the 20th century, the Vistula watershed in particular sustained many small village scale seasonal fishing operation producing salmon, pike, and sturgeon. These small seasonal operations generally used seine nets or wiers to trap the fish during their annual runs, and I don't think that that labor was especially gendered for the same reason that harvesting grain wasn't terribly gendered -- it was a seasonal activity requiring the temporary mobilization of all working hands.
If you want, I can talk more about how fishing rights were only in inland waterways in the 17th century, but that's quite a bit further afield from your original question.