If the Anglo-Saxons were from Denmark, followed by the Vikings and the Danelaw, followed by the Normans... How is at least the "England" part of the UK not considered a Nordic country?

I halfway know my answer, in that they are culturally different. But why is the English culture different vs. how Iceland has remained a Nordic Country?

My question may be sophomoric, but I'm hoping to prompt some great AskHistorian to explanation!

Thanks!