"Islam saved women who were exploited, enslaved, and regarded as second class in the darkness of the pre-Islamic Age of Ignorance from the position of a poor creature and elevated them to a new status as a blessed being. Islam freed women from being treated as a tool of pleasure and laid Paradise under their feet. If the essential sources of religion and the exemplary lives of the first two generations of Muslims who lived after God's Messenger are carefully studied, it will be seen that Muslim women were absolutely not confined to their home and they were never oppressed. If those who come up with such claims are not prejudiced and are not making deliberate assertions, then these ideas stem from being ignorant of the essential principles the religion set on this matter and from attributing misconceptions and misapplications—which originate from interference of local customs—throughout history to Islam"
In a word, no. Women in pre-Islamic Arabia seem to have had diverse roles and statuses. Our sources on the question are, however, extremely limited.
If the essential sources of religion and the exemplary lives of the first two generations of Muslims who lived after God's Messenger are carefully studied, it will be seen that Muslim women were absolutely not confined to their home and they were never oppressed.
One can also see that in regards to pre-Islamic Arabia from some of the same figures, particularly Khadijah, Muhammad's first wife, who was what me might today describe as an independently wealthy small business woman before any of Muhammad's revelations.
they were never oppressed.
Well, define oppressed. The hadith and sharia generally seem to have codified quite a lot of pre-existing practices. Those practices can be comfortably described in a contemporary context as patriarchal and oppressive.
which originate from interference of local customs
The notion that everything bad in how predominantly Islamic societies today treat women is an intrusion or interference of local custom is a common one, and for certain practices seems to be basically true. Female genital mutilation, for instance, is not especially well-attested in the hadith and there differing views on the subject within Islam, but the idea that it's basically a traditional cultural rather than religious practice certainly has some merit.
That being said, all of that is to ignore the extent to which Islamic law is itself derived from pre-existing or continued practice within Arabia that then becomes ensconced as Islamic law after Muhammad's death.
Of course, all of this is only true for pre-Islamic Arabia, which was a small part of the overall Islamic conquests. I've yet to come across a source suggesting that women in, say, post-conquest Egypt or Syria felt especially liberated from oppression by the new conquests, nor any suggestion that that was a motivation of the conquerors.
For further reading I would point you to Robert Hoyland's Arabia and the Arabs: From the Bronze Age to the Coming of Islam.